“Behold, I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before [in the face of] me; and the Lord, whom you seek, will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant, whom you desire, behold, he comes!” says Yahweh of hosts. — Malachi 3:1, World English

The two prophecies above speak of John the Baptist and his work. Many, in seeing the application of John the Baptist as being the forerunner of Jesus, have thought that these scriptures offer proof that Jesus is Yahweh. This idea, however, is due, in part, to a misreading of what these scriptures are actually saying. We will consider the scriptures in the NT that apply the above two scriptures to John the Baptist and his work.

In Malachi 3, two messengers are referred to. The first is the messenger who goes before Yahweh, and then there is the other messenger, spoken of as the “messenger of the covenant. The Hebrew translated “messenger” in both instances is malak, angel. Neither of these are of the order of spirit beings that are normally referred to as “angels”, but both are messengers for Yahweh. The Lord (adon) whom Israel was seeking was the Messiah, who came suddenly to his temple. He came unexpectedly to test and prove Israel as a people, and as such he came to the temple in Jerusalem, but more specifically, Jesus came to his temple, his church, which has been given to him by his God. — Ephesians 2:20-22; John 6:37,39; 10:29.

Matthew 3:1-3

In those days, John the Baptizer came, preaching in the wilderness of Judea, saying, “Repent, for the Kingdom of Heaven is at hand!” For this is he who was spoken of by Isaiah the prophet, saying, “The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Make ready the way of Yahweh, Make his paths straight.” — Holy Name supplied.

Like most quotations of the Old Testament in the New Testament, this is not a direct quote, but an indirect quote. The phrase “in the wilderness” is removed from the comand to the people and applied directly to the one who is delivering the message.

It should be clear here that the one crying in the wilderness is John the Baptizer. He, in effect, tells the people: “Make ready the way of Yahweh, Make his paths straight.” The method by which John the Baptist tells the people this message is by his preaching to the people: “Repent, for the Kingdom of the Heaven is at hand!” (Matthew 3:1-3; see also Acts 20:21, which shows that repentance is toward God.) In other words, ‘The Royal Majesty from heaven is at hand!’ Thus the method in which the people make ready the way of Yahweh, and make his paths straight is through repentance toward Yahweh, in preparation for the one coming in Yahweh’s name, the one who spoke for Yahweh, the one appointed as King by Yahweh. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Psalm 2:2,6; 45:6,7; 110:1,2; Isaiah 9:6,7; 61:1; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 21:9; 23:39; 28:18; Luke 24:19; John 4:25; 5:43; 8:28; 10:25; 12:49,50; Acts 2:34-36; 3:17-26; 5:30,31; Ephesians 1:22; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2,9; 3:1,2.

Some often refer to the verse in Isaiah 40:3 as though the message to prepare the way was actually addressed to John the Baptist, rather than being the words attributed to John the Baptist which are addressed to the people. Thus some would read the prophesy as an address to John the Baptist to prepare the way of Yahweh, who they claim to be Jesus. In reality, in Isaiah, the messenger [John] directs the message to the people of Israel. (Isaiah 40:3, Malachi 3:1 — see also Genesis 18:19; Proverbs 10:29; Jeremiah 5:4,5) The command given to prepare the way is not to one person, as John the Baptist, but the Hebrew is in the plural, not singular. Thus in Matthew 3, the “one” before foretold is John the Baptist, who is the one in the wilderness who declares a message to the people: “Prepare the way before Yahweh”, which was a message to the people of repentance toward Yahweh.

Of course, Jesus is the representative of Yahweh, and John did come before Jesus, and did, by means of preaching repentance toward Yahweh, prepare the people to receive Jesus, not as Yahweh the Almighty, but the Anointed One of Yahweh the Almighty, the one whom Yahweh. sent to speak his words in his name. — Deuteronomy 18:15-20; Isaiah 61:1; Luke 1:32; John 3:16,17; 17:1,3.

Thus, by telling the people to prepare the way of Yahweh by means of repentance toward Yahweh, a way was also being prepared for Jesus, the representative of Yahweh. It could be said that John, in making the way, so to speak, for Jesus, was also preparing the way for the one who sent Jesus. The Messiah was sent by Yahweh as the representative of Yahweh. Those who received him received Yahweh also, just as any who receives a true disciple of Christ, also receives Christ. — Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark 9:37; Luke 2:26; 9:20,48; John 3:17; 4:34; 5:24,30,36-38; 6:29,38-44,57; 7:16,18,28,29,33; 8:16,26,29,42; 9:4; 10:36; 11:42; 12:44-49; 13:20; 17:1,3; Hebrews 1:9.

One would have to read into the verse that Jesus is Yahweh.

Matthew 11:9,10

But why did you go out? To see a prophet? Yes, I tell you, and much more than a prophet. For this is he, of whom it is written, ‘Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way before [in the sight of] you.’

Jesus quotes indirectly from Malachi 3:1, and rewords the prophecy. Jesus is speaking to the multitudes of Jews concerning John the Baptist. In verse 9, he uses the plural “you” in address of his audience; the same is done verse 11. However, in the reference to the prophecy of Malachi he uses the singular “your” and “you”. It is possible that by “your face” and “your way before you”, he is referring to Israel as a whole, and as represented by the multitude whom he was addressing. If so, then Yahweh speaks of sending his messenger (John) to prepare the face and way of Israel in the sight of Israel.

Most commentators present the idea that “your way” and “your face” refers to Christ’s face and Christ’s way. In context, however, “your” appears to be referring to those to whom the messenger is sent to, that is, Israel. However, if applied to Yahweh, that is, the way of Yahweh, it would mean that John the Baptist was sent to preach repentance toward Yahweh to the people, as in the other verses. Nevertheless, even if applied to “Christ’s way” the idea that this would mean that Jesus is Yahweh would have to be read into the verse, for the application of the scripture could be applied to Jesus as Yahweh’s representative, as we will see below.

The fact that a prophecy spoken of Yahweh is fulfilled in one who is the representative of Yahweh is not a new thing. Yahweh says in Exodus 3:8: “I have come down to deliver them out of the hand of the Egyptians, and to bring them up out of that land to a good and large land, to a land flowing with milk and honey.” Yahweh himself says that he himself had come down to deliver Israel, but note what is said later to Moses: “Come now therefore, and I will send you to Pharaoh, that you may bring forth my people, the children of Israel, out of Egypt.” (Exodus 3:10) Although Moses is used by Yahweh to fulfill the earlier statement, it is apparent that Moses is not Yahweh who sent him. Likewise, with our Lord Jesus: it should be apparent that it is Yahweh who sent Jesus to represent and speak for him, and thus that Jesus is not Yahweh who sent him. — Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

Mark 1:2-5

As it is written in the prophets, “Behold, I send my messenger before your face, Who will prepare your way before you. 3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make ready the way of Yahweh! Make his paths straight!’” 4 John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching the baptism of repentance for forgiveness of sins. 5 There went out to him all the country of Judea, and all those of Jerusalem. They were baptized by him in the Jordan river, confessing their sins. — Divine name supplied.

Both prophecies are referred to here. Again, it is evident that Mark is making an indirect quotation and rewords the prophecies. Malachi 3:1 is quoted similarly to the same way is quoted in Matthew 11:9,10, which see above. Jesus is the representative of Yahweh, the messenger of the covenant, and also was sent by Yahweh. He is not Yahweh who sent him.

It was the through the repentance, or the transmentation, of the people that Isaiah 40:3 was being fulfilled. Verse two shows this, in that the messenger directs the message to the people of Israel, who needed to repent before Yahweh. And thereby the people, through their repentance toward God, did prepare the way of Yahweh by making themselves a prepared people before their Messiah (anointed of Yah) was made known to them. — Acts 20:21.

Please note that it is not only John, who is the messenger to the people, but more importantly the people who prepare the way of Yahweh by means of their repentance. John’s mission was pre-eminently that of a reprover and reformer, telling the people to prepare the way of Yahweh through repentance toward Yahweh symbolized through water baptism.

See Matthew 3:1-3 and Matthew 11:9,10 above.

Luke 1:1-4

Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate being governor of Judea, and Herod being tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Philip tetrarch of the region of Ituraea and Trachonitis, and Lysanias tetrarch of Abilene, in the high priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John, the son of Zacharias, in the wilderness. He came into all the region around the Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance to remission of sins. As it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet, “The voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make ready the way of Yahweh. Make his paths straight.”

This is also another indirect quote of Isaiah 40:3. See Matthew 3:1-3 above.

Luke 1:15-17

For he will be great in the sight of Yahweh, and he will drink no wine nor strong drink. He will be filled with the Holy Spirit, even from his mother’s womb. He will turn many of the children of Israel to Yahweh, their God. He will go before his face in the spirit and power of Elijah, ‘to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children,’ and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for Yahweh.”

Here John is said to make ready a people for Yahweh. This he did by his preaching of repentance toward Yahweh.

See Matthew 3:1-3 above.

Luke 1:76,77

And you, child, will be called a prophet of the Most High, For you will go before the face of Yahweh to make ready his ways, To give knowledge of salvation to his people by the remission of their sins.

See Matthew 3:1-3 above.

Luke 7:26,27

But what did you go out to see? A prophet? Yes, I tell you, and much more than a prophet. This is he of whom it is written, ‘Behold, I send my messenger before your face, Who will prepare your way before you.’

See Matthew 3:1-3 and Matthew 11:9,10 above.

John 1:23

He [John the Baptizer] said, “I am the voice of one crying in the wilderness, ‘Make straight the way of Yahweh,’ as Isaiah the prophet said.”

The same applies here as to the verses already discussed above.

The above examination shows that there is nothing in any of these verses that should lead us to believe that Jesus is Yahweh.

Some Related Writings – We do not necessarily agree with all conclusions presented by these authors.

Matthew quotes Isaiah and states that Jesus would be called “Immanuel”, “God with us”. (Matthew 1:23; Isaiah 7:14; 8:8) But is this supposed to mean that Jesus is Yahweh? Such is reading into this an extra-Biblical concept. It is doubtful that anyone would even think such a thing from this titular name if it were not for a prevailing theory that Jesus was actually an incarnation of Yahweh himself. The scripture does not say, as many would wish it to say, that Jesus is God with us; rather it says “they shall call his name Immanuel, which is, being interpreted, ‘God with us.’ ” We should note that the Messiah’s personal name as given to him by his Father is “Jesus” (Yahshua), not Immanuel. Immanuel is a titular “name,” not his personal name. The name “Immanuel” is to be understood in the light of Acts 10:38; “How God anointed him with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him.” The scripture does not say that Jesus was God Almighty in the flesh, but that God Almighty was with Jesus, thus “God” who was with Jesus is being spoken of as one person; Jesus is not God Almighty who was with him.

If one chooses to use the logic of those wish to read the scripture as saying that Jesus was God Almighty in the flesh, then consider the name “Jehu”. In Hebrew, this name means “He is Yah” or “Yah is He.” Does that mean the man Jehu is, in reality, Yahweh? Likewise with the name Eliathath, which means “God has come”. Are we to think that Eliathath is God Almighty because of the name given to him? Other names could also be cited that could be interpreted in some manner that would make the bearer of the name Yahweh, if one were follow the same logic as many would apply to Matthew 1:23.

God, being with Jesus, is with his people through Jesus. Having the titular name Immanuel, signifying that God is with his people, does not mean that Jesus is God Almighty.

By this titular name Jesus’ office as Yahweh’s representative is indicated — Jesus comes in the name of and speaks on behalf of his God, Yahweh (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1); this view is corroborated absolutely by the Apostle Paul, who after quoting from this prophecy and pointing to its fulfilment in the destroying of Adamic death during the Millennium says — “Thanks be unto God who giveth us the victory [deliverance -- triumph] through our Lord Jesus Christ.” (1 Corinthians 15:57) As such a representative Jesus is the proof that God is on our side, that God will deliver his church and that God will deliver the world of mankind by him.

The following scriptures, taken from the King James Version of the Bible, give examples of this usage (Divine Name, Yahweh, supplied by us at the appropriate places where it appears in the Hebrew):

Exodus 10:10: And he said unto them, Let [Yahweh] be so with you, as I will let you go, and your little ones: look to it; for evil is before you.

Deuteronomy 20:4 For [Yahweh] your God is he that goeth with you, to fight for you against your enemies, to save you.

Numbers 14:9: Only rebel not ye against [Yahweh], neither fear ye the people of the land; for they are bread for us: their defence is departed from them, and [Yahweh] is with us: fear them not.

Numbers 14:43: For the Amalekites and the Canaanites are there before you, and ye shall fall by the sword: because ye are turned away from [Yahweh], therefore [Yahweh] will not be with you.

Judges 6:13: And Gideon said unto him, Oh my Lord, if [Yahweh] be with us, why then is all this befallen us? and where be all his miracles which our fathers told us of, saying, Did not [Yahweh] bring us up from Egypt? but now [Yahweh] hath forsaken us, and delivered us into the hands of the Midianites.

Ruth 2:4: And, behold, Boaz came from Bethlehem, and said unto the reapers, [Yahweh] be with you. And they answered him, [Yahweh] bless thee.

1 Chronicles 22:17,18: David also commanded all the princes of Israel to help Solomon his son, saying, Is not [Yahweh] your God with you? and hath he not given you rest on every side? for he hath given the inhabitants of the land into mine hand; and the land is subdued before [Yahweh], and before his people.

2 Chronicles 13:12: And, behold, God himself is with us for our captain, and his priests with sounding trumpets to cry alarm against you. O children of Israel, fight ye not against the [Yahweh] God of your fathers; for ye shall not prosper.

2 Chronicles 15:2: And he went out to meet Asa, and said unto him, Hear ye me, Asa, and all Judah and Benjamin; [Yahweh] is with you, while ye be with him; and if ye seek him, he will be found of you; but if ye forsake him, he will forsake you.

2 Chronicles 20:17: Ye shall not need to fight in this battle: set yourselves, stand ye still, and see the salvation of [Yahweh] with you, O Judah and Jerusalem: fear not, nor be dismayed; to morrow go out against them: for [Yahweh] will be with you.

2 Chronicles 32:8: With him is an arm of flesh; but with us is [Yahweh] our God to help us, and to fight our battles. And the people rested themselves upon the words of Hezekiah king of Judah.

2 Kings 8:57: [Yahweh] our God be with us, as he was with our fathers: let him not leave us, nor forsake us:

Isaiah 8:10: Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for God is with us.

Psalm 46:7: [Yahweh] of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah.

Psalm 46:11: [Yahweh] of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah.

Jeremiah 42:11: Be not afraid of the king of Babylon, of whom ye are afraid; be not afraid of him, saith [Yahweh]: for I am with you to save you, and to deliver you from his hand.

Amos 5:14: Seek good, and not evil, that ye may live: and so [Yahweh], the God of hosts, shall be with you, as ye have spoken.

Haggai 1:13: Then spake Haggai [Yahweh]’s messenger in [Yahweh]’s message unto the people, saying, I am with you, saith [Yahweh].

Haggai 2:4: Yet now be strong, O Zerubbabel, saith [Yahweh]; and be strong, O Joshua, son of Josedech, the high priest; and be strong, all ye people of the land, saith [Yahweh], and work: for I am with you, saith [Yahweh] of hosts:

Philippians 4:9: Those things, which ye have both learned, and received, and heard, and seen in me, do: and the God of peace shall be with you.

2 Thessalonians 3:16: Now the Lord of peace himself give you peace always by all means. The Lord be with you all.

The study below, written by Benjamin Wilson, is believed to be in the public domain.

In what sense was Christ the son of man?

There is no doubt whatever as to Christ being “the Son of Man” — but in what sense it is asked. Did this phrase mean that he was simply a man — one of human kind; or did it imply something more than this? I think more is comprehended in the phrase. Jesus very frequently spoke of himself as the Son of Man, and must have meant something beyond the idea that some have advanced, that he was the son of the man Joseph, the husband of his mother Mary. I will give a few references for the reader to examine, where Jesus calls himself the Son of Man. (Matthew 20:18; 18:11; 16:13-16; 12:8; 20:18,19; 25:31; 26:64) These are all from Matthew’s testimony. They prove that the Son of Man was the anointed one, and are to be so understood. The Jews also understood the term as synonymous with Messiah. What other conclusion could they or we arrive at after reading Daniel 7:13,14? Let the reader turn to this reference, and see if it does not refer to the Messiah. But why is he called the Son of Man? Surely not in the same sense that I am the son of a man, because begotten by him; nor as the term is so frequently applied to Ezekiel the prophet; nor as used by David in the eighth Psalm, and as quoted by Paul in Hebrews 2:6. The phrase as used by Jesus is always in the emphatic form, though our English versions do not show it. The Greek is–ho whyos tou anthropou, “the Son of the Man.” This definite form of expression implies that Christ was the son of some particular man. Shall we say the son of Joseph, the carpenter? Did Jesus mean this every time, when he used this emphatic form of expression? I trow not. Then whose son was he? I answer, “the son of David.” The Messiah was to be the seed of David, according to the Prophets, and the genealogical records as given by Matthew and Luke, prove that Jesus was the Son of David, with whom Jehovah made an everlasting covenant, saying, “His seed shall endure forever, and his throne as the sun before me,” (Psalm 89:36). The genealogical records prove him to be the Son of David. The prophets foretold that the Messiah who should sit on David’s throne, and order his kingdom, was to be the Son of Jesse and David. (Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:1; Jeremiah 23:5; 33:15; Psalm 132:11) The apostles believed that Jesus was the Messiah and the son of David. Peter, in his discourse on the day of Pentecost, tells the Jews that Jesus, according to the flesh, was from the loins of David; and Paul says that he was “made of the seed of David according to the flesh,” (Acts 2:30; Romans 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8). And the glorified Jesus himself declares: “I am the root and offspring of David,” (Revelation 22:16). From these testimonies I conclude that Jesus the Christ was the Son of Man, not in the sense of simply being a man, but because he was the son of the man David, with whom Jehovah made an everlasting covenant, that the throne and kingdom of Israel should belong to him and his seed forever.

In what sense was Christ the son of God?

He was called the son of God while in the flesh. But it is asked in what sense? I answer, because he was God’s son, in the sense of being begotten by him. Christ called God his Father, and God acknowledged him as his son. (See Matthew 3:17; 17:5) If Christ was the Son of God only as we are sons of God, then he was not the son of God, but a son; nor would there be any more reason in confessing him to be the Son of the living God, as Peter and all the apostles did, than in confessing some other believer to be God’s son. But Jesus claimed to be the Son of God, and consequently the Messiah. He also required his disciples to believe this truth. (See John 9:35-37; 10:36) The belief that Jesus, the Son of Man, was also the Christ, the Son of the living God, lies at the very foundation of Christianity — on it the Church was to be built. (Matthew 16:16-18) Jesus was more than an adopted son by faith–was more than a begotten son by the word of truth; he was “the only begotten of the Father,” (John 1:14; 3:16; 1 John 4:9). The Father with audible voice, proclaimed him as his beloved Son, (Matthew 3:17; 17:5). Paul calls him God’s own Son, and his dear son, (Galatians 4:4-5; Colossians 1:13).

Objections:

The following material was not written by Benjamin Wilson, but rather by R. Day. Unless otherwise noted, the World English Bible is used for Bible quotes.

One objects that the term “son of man” was a common title used by Jews that meant that the person was a simply a human. According to this reasoning, Jesus was both “son of man” — a human being, and “Son of God” — the Supreme Being. The argument is usually vaguely put forth, but sometimes declared to “clearly” show that Jesus was both man and the Supreme Being. We have never seen any attempt to explain how Jesus was and is supposedly still two “beings” at once.

Of course, the expression “son of man” does in a general way refer to an offspring of a human being. Nevertheless, there is scriptural proof that the expression “son of man” was referring to a certain offspring of a certain man, that is, the long waited for Messiah, who was to a son of a man in a special way, that is, the son of the man, David. In the Messianic sense as related to the promises, “son of man”, “Son of God”, as well as “Son of David”, are expressions that are used almost interchangeable.

Once Jesus asked his disciples: “Who do people say that the Son of Man is?” (Matthew 16:13, New American Standard — NAS) Notice how the title is used. It is not used as though it were speaking of any son of any man, but it is used as though it was being understood as referring to a specific son of man. Thus, we can see that this title was, indeed being used by the Jews in a specific way, that is, as referring to promises related to one who was to come as the son of a specific man, that is, the Son of David.

The disciples responded: “Some say John the Baptist; and others, Elijah; but still others, Jeremiah, or one of the prophets.” (Matthew 16:14, NAS) From this we can see that the Jews did have a specific application of the term “the Son of Man” in mind, that is, the promised Messiah. They were not expecting the Messiah to be the Supreme Being and also a human being.

Jesus then asked them: “But who do you say that I am?” (Matthew 16:15) Peter answered: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” (Matthew 16:16) From his answer we determine that the expression “Son of Man” was being considered as related to the promises concerning the Messiah and “Son of the Living God.” In other words, “the Son of Man” is made equal to “Son of the Living God”. It was evidently an expression being used by the Jews in general as denoting the promised one, the promised Messiah, the Son of David.

Brother Wilson in the article above gave a list of scriptures that show that the title was a messianic title. An examination of some of the references above prove that the expression “Son of Man” was indeed synonymous with Messiah (Christ), the one promised to come as the son of the man, David, the Anointed of Yahweh. — Matthew 20:18; 18:11; 16:13-16; 12:8; 20:18,19; 25:31; 26:64.

Another objection is that Wilson stated: “The phrase as used by Jesus is always in the emphatic form, though our English versions do not show it.” Yet John 5:27 are the words of Jesus, but in this place the expression is anarthrous, and could be rendered “son of a man”. Doesn’t this show that Jesus was being given the judgment because, not only was he the Supreme Being, but he was also a son of a man, that is, human?

John 5:27 states: “He also gave him authority to execute judgment, because he is a son of man.” (World English Bible translation) We answer that yes, Wilson evidently did overlook this one time that Jesus did not use the definite article. Jesus several times refers to himself as “Son” and to the only true Supreme Being (John 17:1,3) as his Father in the context of John 5:27. Our trinitarian neighbors wish to read into the two expressions that somehow this makes Jesus a hypostatic union — both the Supreme Being and human being. In reality, there is no need to read such into what Jesus said. The statement is that God, the only true Supreme Being, the God and Father of Jesus, gave to the Son the authority to execute judgment “because” he is a son of man. We are left wondering why there would be any merit of Jesus’ simply being the son of any man that would be the “cause” that he would receive authority to execute judgment. The point seems to be that as pointed out in Hebrews 2:17; 5:8, he was made like his brothers, and, his sufferings  while in full to his obedience qualified him to be given the authority to judge. Nevertheless, this was not simply “because” Jesus was the son of any man, such as Joseph, his “foster” father, for if he had been, he would have been a sinner just as Joseph; rather Jesus was counted as the promised the Son of David, to whom the promises belong, having been given a special body untainted by the sin of Adam. (Romans 5:12-19; Hebrews 10:5) Thus, we have no reason to believe that Jesus intended the expression “Son of Man” in John 5:27 to mean that he was simply of a son of any man, for such a generalization would additionally make him a sinner as all men.  It is to the Son of David the promises are made concerning authority and judgment. — Psalm 2:6-9; 132:11; Isaiah 9:6,7; 11:1; Jeremiah 22:30; 23:5; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 9:6; 12:8; 25:31; Matthew 26:64; 28:18; Mark 2:10,28; 13:26; 14:52; Luke 1:32; 5:24; 6:5; 21:27; 22:69; John 5:27; 3:13; Acts 13:34; Ephesians 1:15-23; Philippians 2:9-11; Hebrews 1:2.

Some say that the expression “Son of Man” simply means that Jesus was the Son of Adam, basing this on the idea that the Hebrew word for “Adam” means “man”, as used in Daniel 8:17. Others claim that Jesus spoke in Hebrew and used the exact term as recorded in Daniel 8:17. While we might consider that Jesus was indeed counted, or reckoned, as a son of Adam, due to the lineage of his foster father, and his mother, from the usage of the phrase in the New Testament, we highly doubt that this is what Jesus had in mind by the expression, “Son of Man”, as he applied this to himself. There are some who go off into even greater extremes, and claim that this title means that Jesus was actually an reincarnation of Adam. How this phrase should show that Jesus is an reincarnation of Adam is vaguely argued, to say the least, for how can stating that one is the son of a person mean that the son is the one of whom he is the son? At any rate, we believe it best to simply stay by the scriptures, rather than add all this extra-Biblical philosophy to the scriptures.

Nevertheless, we need to bear out that if Jesus had been the son of Adam in the sense that all mankind is, this would have made him also a sinner as all of us. Jesus actually had not father on earth, and thus was not contaminated with Adamic sin that pervades mankind. (Romans 5:12-19) Adam lost the dominion for man because of his sin, so that now we do not yet see all things in subjection to man. (Hebrews 2:8) Jesus did come as human, a little lower than the angels, crowned with glory, and provided the redemption price to restore this glory and dominion to man (not to angels). — Hebrews 2:9.

Although Jesus was not actually under the condemnation through Adam (in him was life — John 1:4), he did willingly submit to undergoing the penalty of the condemnation in order to take the condemnation off Adam and the race in Adam’s loins. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22; 1 Timothy 2:5,6; Hebrews 2:9) It is in this manner that he who knew no sin was sin for us. — 1 Corinthians 5:21.

Thus the term, Son of Man, is not being used to represent one in condemnation, which would be the case had Jesus actually been born simply as a “son of Adam” as the rest of the human race, for the human race through Adam are sinful flesh, dying (1 Corinthians 15:22; Romans 5:12-19 – See New American Standard), since through Adam the many — the whole human race — are made sinners. Had Jesus been of such sinful stock, he could not have had life (John 1:4), nor could he have died for our sins.  As the son of  the man, having received a specially prepared body from God (Hebrews 10:5), Jesus in the days of his flesh was indeed, the Son of God, as was Adam before Adam sinned, the sinless Adam being a type of the Messiah. (Luke 3:38;  Romans 5:14) Nevertheless, the title, Son of the Man, refers more especially to the inheritance of the higher dominion that is to restore man’s glory and dominion over the animal kingdom. — Daniel 2:35,44; Isaiah 2:2-4; 11:6-9; Matthew 1:1; 9:27; 12:23; 15:22; 16:13,27; 20:30,31; 21:29,15; 22:42; Mark 10:47,48; 12:35; Luke 1:32; 18:38,39; Romans 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8; Revelation 5:5; 20:1-5.

Jesus was counted, or reckoned, as the seed of David because of his parents, even though Jesus’ actual father was God in heaven. As a result of having God as his Father, was did Adam before Adam sinned, Jesus’ human soul, including his body and his blood, was not tainted by the sin of Adam, as are the rest of mankind. How did Jesus’ body come down from heaven? Does
this mean that Jesus was a human with a body of flesh before coming to into
the world? We know that Jesus’ body was formed in the womb of Mary, but the conception of the flesh was from the God of Jesus by means of the holy spirit. (Matthew 1:20) This does not mean that the flesh that was conceived  — begotten — was God Almighty, but rather, the scripture says that Jesus’ body was prepared for him by his God (Hebrews 10:5), for the purpose of its being an offering for sin. (Hebrews 10:10; John 6:51) Jesus spoke of his body, his flesh, in John 6:32 as symbolically the “bread of life” that was from the only true God, his Father, who sent Jesus. “My Father gives you the true bread out of heaven.” (John 17:1,3) Thus, while his body was formed in the womb of Mary, the God of Jesus was the one who prepared his body. His body was not tainted by the sinful flesh of mankind. (Romans 8:3) Jesus was without sin, he never fell short of the glory of God, as those who are dying “in Adam”. (Romans 3:23; 1 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 2:22; 1 John 3:5) He was not ‘by nature a child of wrath’ as mankind in general, due to the sin of Adam. (Ephesians 2:3) Having no sin, the was the “bread of life”. In him was life, a sinless life, equal ot that of Adam’s before Adam sinned, which he could offer in sacrifice for the world of mankind dying in Adam — the just for the unjust. (John 1:4; 1 Corinthians 15:3; 1 Peter 3:18) He could offer his flesh — his humanity — as a sacrifice for sin, and thus by our symbolically eating and partaking of his flesh, through faith in him, we can have life.

Updated: November 30, 2005; May 30, 2009.

This scripture is often used by trinitarians to make it appear that that there are three persons in God. Others refer to the scripture as meaning that Jesus is expressed as three modes, manifestations, etc. What we want to know is exactly what does this scripture say, what does it not say, and how does harmonize with the rest of the scriptures.

We first note that there is nothing in Matthew 28:19 that says the three mentioned are co-equal or co-eternal. We know many try to say that since it says “name” — singular — that this means that there are three persons being spoken of with one name, and that this proves that there is a trinity of persons in one God. Matthew 28:19 does not say that these are three persons, although two of those mentioned are persons. But even if it was speaking of three persons, it does not say or imply that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three persons in one Supreme Being.

It is apparent that the word “name” here does not refer to any separate appellations of the three mentioned. We have the personal name of the Father — Yahweh. We have the personal name of the Son — Jesus. But the scriptures do not give a personal name for the holy spirit. Therefore the word “name” is either used in the sense of authority or of character.

And the Bible does use of the word “name” in the Bible is that of authority or power. Thus David sent his men to Nabal in his name, that is, with his authority. (1 Samuel 25:5,9) In Matthew 7:22, many are described as claiming to have done many works in the Master’s name, that is, with his authority. Peter and Paul were asked by the priests: “By what power, or in what name, have you done this?” (Acts 4:7) These references all show that by coming in the name of another means to come with the authority given by that person. It does not necessarily refer to the word or appelation itself that is used to distinguish that person. In reference to this Robertson states concerning Matthew 28:19:

John tells us that Jesus is the one whom God has sent and who speaks the words of God. This fulfills Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Jesus is the prophet of whom Yahweh says: “I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him.” (Deuteronomy 18:18) And Yahweh gives to Jesus the spirit without limit, so that Jesus can accomplish all the things that Yahweh has put into his hand. (Colossians 2:9,10)

That God has given “all things” into his hand does not mean that Jesus is or became his God who has put all things in his hand, since, as Paul says, “it is evident that he is excepted who subjected all things to him.” (1 Corinthians 15:27)  Additionally, it should be apparent that if the “all things” spoken of here were put into the hands of Jesus, then Jesus did not have this authority/power of himself, but it is “given” to him, which shows that Jesus is not God Almighty. “Who has first given to me, that I should repay him? Everything under the heavens is mine,” says Yahweh. (Job 41:11; Romans 11:35; see 1 Chronicles 29:11,12; John 10:29; 14:28) Thus through this, as well as many other scriptures, the holy spirit reveals that Jesus is not Yahweh.